Mathematics Advanced • Year 12 • Module 7 • Lesson 9
Annuities Due and Payment Timing
Build fluency in converting ordinary annuity calculations to annuity-due calculations using the (1 + r) adjustment.
1. Quick recall
Answer each question in the space provided. 1 mark each
Q1.1 Complete the rule that converts an ordinary annuity to an annuity due:
Annuity Due = Ordinary × ______________
Q1.2 An ordinary annuity has payments at the ____________ of each period. An annuity due has payments at the ____________ of each period.
Q1.3 The (1 + r) adjustment applies to (circle one): PV only / FV only / both PV and FV.
2. Worked example — gym membership $500/month for 2 years
Follow each line. Reasons appear in italics on the right.
Problem. A gym charges $500 at the start of each month for 2 years at 6% p.a. compounded monthly. Find the PV (the lump-sum value of the contract today).
Step 1 — Convert the rate and time to monthly.
r = 0.06 / 12 = 0.005 ; n = 24 months.
Reason: r and n must be in the same unit as the payment.
Step 2 — Compute the ordinary PV first.
PV_ord = 500 × [1 − (1.005)⁻²⁴] / 0.005 = 500 × 22.5806 = $11,290.30.
Reason: this assumes end-of-month payments.
Step 3 — Multiply by (1 + r) to shift payments to start-of-period.
PV_due = 11,290.30 × 1.005 = $11,346.75.
Reason: every payment is one period earlier, so each is discounted by one less period.
Conclusion. The gym effectively receives $56.45 more in PV terms than if you paid at the end of each month — and this is built into the gym's pricing.
3. Faded example — fill in the missing steps
An insurance policy requires premiums of $250 paid at the start of each quarter for 5 years at 8% p.a. compounded quarterly. Find the PV. 5 marks
Step 1 — Match rate and time to quarters.
r = 0.08 / ____ = ____________ ; n = 5 × ____ = ____________
Step 2 — Compute ordinary PV.
PV_ord = 250 × [1 − (1 + ____)^(− ____)] / ____ = 250 × ____________ = $____________
Step 3 — Apply the (1 + r) due adjustment.
PV_due = ____________ × (1 + ____) = $____________
Conclusion. The present value of the premium stream is $____________.
4. Graduated practice
Show every line of working. Round to the nearest cent.
Foundation — apply the (1 + r) factor (4 questions)
| Q | Ordinary value given | Due value (compute) |
|---|---|---|
| 4.1 1 | FV_ord = $10,000; r = 6% | FV_due = |
| 4.2 1 | PV_ord = $15,000; r = 4% | PV_due = |
| 4.3 1 | FV_ord = $50,000; r = 0.5% per month | FV_due = |
| 4.4 1 | PV_ord = $25,000; r = 1.2% per quarter | PV_due = |
Standard — full annuity-due calculations (6 questions)
Compute the ordinary value, then multiply by (1 + r).
4.5 FV of $500 paid at the start of each year for 15 years at 6% p.a. 2 marks
4.6 FV of $1,000 paid at the start of each year for 30 years at 3% p.a. 2 marks
4.7 PV of $800 paid at the start of each year for 20 years at 5% p.a. 2 marks
4.8 Rent: $1,500/month at the start of each month for 1 year at 4.8% p.a. compounded monthly. Find PV. 2 marks
4.9 Insurance: $250 paid at the start of each quarter for 5 years at 8% p.a. compounded quarterly. Find PV. 2 marks
4.10 Tutoring: $150 at the start of each month for 12 months at 4.8% p.a. compounded monthly. Find PV. 2 marks
Extension — derive and reason (2 questions)
4.11 Show algebraically that FV_due = a × [(1 + r)ⁿ − 1] / r × (1 + r). Hence prove that the percentage gap FV_due/FV_ord − 1 equals exactly r, regardless of a and n. 3 marks
4.12 A landlord asks: "Pay $1,500 at the end of each month, or $1,470 at the start." At 4.8% p.a. compounded monthly, over 12 months: which is the better deal for the tenant? Show both PVs. 3 marks
5. Self-check the easy 3
Tick once you've checked your method works.
How did this worksheet feel?
What I'll revisit before next class:
Q1.1 — Conversion rule
Annuity Due = Ordinary × (1 + r).
Q1.2 — Timing
Ordinary: end of each period. Due: start of each period.
Q1.3 — Where the (1 + r) applies
Both PV and FV.
Q3 — Faded example: $250/quarter due for 5 yrs at 8%
r = 0.02; n = 20. PV_ord = 250 × [1 − (1.02)⁻²⁰]/0.02 = 250 × 16.3514 = $4,087.85. PV_due = 4,087.85 × 1.02 = $4,169.61. (Lesson gives $4,169.51 — within rounding.)
Q4.1–4.4 — Due-from-ordinary
4.1: FV_due = 10,000 × 1.06 = $10,600.
4.2: PV_due = 15,000 × 1.04 = $15,600.
4.3: FV_due = 50,000 × 1.005 = $50,250.
4.4: PV_due = 25,000 × 1.012 = $25,300.
Q4.5
FV_ord = 500 × [(1.06)¹⁵ − 1]/0.06 = 500 × 23.276 = $11,637.86. FV_due = 11,637.86 × 1.06 = $12,336.13.
Q4.6
FV_ord = 1,000 × [(1.03)³⁰ − 1]/0.03 = 1,000 × 47.5754 = $47,575.42. FV_due = 47,575.42 × 1.03 = $49,002.68.
Q4.7
PV_ord = 800 × [1 − (1.05)⁻²⁰]/0.05 = 800 × 12.4622 = $9,969.78. PV_due = 9,969.78 × 1.05 = $10,468.27. (Lesson Activity gives $9,966.63 → $10,464.96 — within rounding.)
Q4.8
r = 0.004, n = 12. PV_ord = 1,500 × [1 − (1.004)⁻¹²]/0.004 = 1,500 × 11.7424 = $17,613.52. PV_due = 17,613.52 × 1.004 = $17,683.97.
Q4.9
(See Worked Example.) PV_due = $4,169.61.
Q4.10
r = 0.004, n = 12. PV_ord = 150 × [1 − (1.004)⁻¹²]/0.004 = 150 × 11.7424 = $1,761.35. PV_due = 1,761.35 × 1.004 = $1,768.40.
Q4.11 — Why the gap equals r
FV_due / FV_ord = (1 + r), so FV_due/FV_ord − 1 = r. This holds for any a and n because the (1 + r) factor is the same multiplicative shift applied to every payment (one extra period of interest each).
Q4.12 — Landlord choice
End-of-month: PV_ord = 1,500 × [1 − (1.004)⁻¹²]/0.004 = 1,500 × 11.7424 = $17,613.52.
Start-of-month: PV_ord at $1,470 = 1,470 × 11.7424 = $17,261.25, then × 1.004 = $17,330.30.
The start-of-month $1,470 deal has lower PV for the tenant by $283.22 — the better choice (assuming the tenant is paying out).