Reduction Formulae II
When reduction formulae are applied to definite integrals — especially $\int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^n x\,dx$ and its cousins — the boundary terms often vanish, leaving a clean recursive relation. Today you will exploit that vanishing to compute $I_n$ for any $n$ in only a few lines, recognise the Wallis pattern, and learn when to stop the recursion. This is one of the highest-leverage techniques in Module 15.
Compute $I_0 = \int_0^{\pi/2} 1\,dx$ and $I_1 = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin x\,dx$. Before checking — also evaluate $\bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2}$ and explain why it equals $0$ whenever $n \geq 2$. Sketch your reasoning below.
For definite reductions on $[0, \tfrac{\pi}{2}]$ the workflow has two habits: choose parts so the boundary term vanishes (split $\sin^n x = \sin^{n-1}x \cdot \sin x$ and take $u = \sin^{n-1}x$, $dv = \sin x\,dx$), then reduce the resulting integral by Pythagoras ($\cos^2 x = 1 - \sin^2 x$) to express $I_n$ as a multiple of $I_{n-2}$.
The parts-then-Pythagoras read: (1) split off one factor of $\sin x$ as $dv$, (2) use IBP — boundary term is zero on $[0,\pi/2]$, (3) replace $\cos^2 x$ with $1 - \sin^2 x$ to recover $I_n$ on the right and rearrange.
$I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^n x\,dx$ · $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}\, I_{n-2}$ · valid for $n \geq 2$
Key facts
- $I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^n x\,dx$ satisfies $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ for $n \geq 2$
- $I_0 = \pi/2$ and $I_1 = 1$ are the base cases
- The boundary term $\bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2} = 0$ when $n \geq 2$
- The same reduction also holds for $\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$ by symmetry
Concepts
- Why the choice $u = \sin^{n-1}x$, $dv = \sin x\,dx$ produces a vanishing boundary term
- Why $I_n$ appears on both sides of the parts equation and must be solved for
- How parity of $n$ determines whether the chain ends at $I_0$ or $I_1$
Skills
- Derive $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ rigorously from integration by parts
- Evaluate $I_n$ for any small $n$ using the Wallis-style descent
- Adapt the technique to $\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$ and $\int_0^{\pi/4}\tan^n x\,dx$
Let $I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ for $n \geq 2$. Write $\sin^n x = \sin^{n-1}x \cdot \sin x$ and apply integration by parts with $u = \sin^{n-1}x$, $dv = \sin x\,dx$, so $du = (n-1)\sin^{n-2}x\cos x\,dx$ and $v = -\cos x$.
Then $$I_n = \bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2} + (n-1)\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^{n-2}x\cos^2 x\,dx.$$
The boundary term is zero: at $x = \pi/2$, $\cos x = 0$; at $x = 0$, $\sin^{n-1}x = 0$ (provided $n \geq 2$). Replace $\cos^2 x = 1 - \sin^2 x$:
$$I_n = (n-1)\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^{n-2}x\,dx - (n-1)\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx = (n-1)I_{n-2} - (n-1)I_n.$$
Bring the $I_n$ over: $nI_n = (n-1)I_{n-2}$, hence $\boxed{I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}\,I_{n-2}}$.
Three moves: split off one $\sin x$ as $dv$, apply parts, use $\cos^2 = 1 - \sin^2$ · Boundary term $\bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2} = 0$ when $n \geq 2$ · After parts: $I_n = (n-1)I_{n-2} - (n-1)I_n \Rightarrow nI_n = (n-1)I_{n-2}$ · Result: $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$, valid for $n \geq 2$, base cases $I_0 = \pi/2$, $I_1 = 1$
Pause — copy the derivation of $I_n = \frac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ (split $\sin^n$, IBP, $\cos^2=1-\sin^2$, solve), the vanishing boundary term, and the two base cases $I_0 = \pi/2$, $I_1 = 1$ into your book.
Quick check: Using $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ with $I_0 = \tfrac{\pi}{2}$, what is $I_4 = \int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^4 x\,dx$?
We just saw that $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ for $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$, proved by IBP followed by $\cos^2=1-\sin^2$; the boundary term $[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x]_0^{\pi/2} = 0$ for all $n \geq 2$. That raises a question: does $n$ even or odd change the closed form? This card answers it → even $n$ gives a product of odd numbers over even numbers times $\pi/2$ (Wallis); odd $n$ gives a ratio of even over odd numbers with no $\pi$.
Iterating the reduction gives two distinct patterns depending on the parity of $n$.
- Even $n = 2m$: $I_{2m} = \dfrac{(2m-1)(2m-3)\cdots 3 \cdot 1}{(2m)(2m-2)\cdots 4 \cdot 2}\cdot \dfrac{\pi}{2}$.
- Odd $n = 2m+1$: $I_{2m+1} = \dfrac{(2m)(2m-2)\cdots 4 \cdot 2}{(2m+1)(2m-1)\cdots 3 \cdot 1}$.
The even case always carries a factor of $\pi/2$; the odd case never does. Use parity to predict the form of the answer before computing.
Even $n$: ratio of odd numbers over even numbers, times $\pi/2$ · Odd $n$: ratio of even numbers over odd numbers, no $\pi$ · $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx = \int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$ by $x \mapsto \pi/2 - x$ · Sanity check: $I_n > 0$ and decreases with $n$ (integrand $\leq 1$)
Pause — copy the even-$n$ (odd/even $\cdot \pi/2$) and odd-$n$ (even/odd, no $\pi$) Wallis-style patterns, the symmetry $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx = \int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$, and the sanity checks ($I_n > 0$, decreasing in $n$) into your book.
Did you get this? True or false: $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^5 x\,dx = \tfrac{8}{15}$ (no factor of $\pi$).
Worked examples · 3 in a row, reveal as you go
Let $I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ for integer $n \geq 2$. Show that $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$.
Evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^6 x\,dx$ using the reduction formula $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$.
Evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^7 x\,dx$ and compare its form to the even case.
Fill the gap: For $I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ with $n \geq 2$, the boundary term in the integration by parts is $\bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2} = $ , and the resulting recursion is $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}\,I_{n-?}$ with in the blank.
Misconceptions to fix · the 3 traps that cost marks
Did you get this? True or false: the reduction formula $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ for $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ holds also for $\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$ with the same coefficients.
Activities · practice with the ideas
Evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^3 x\,dx$ using the reduction formula. Show each step of the chain.
Evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^8 x\,dx$. Use the same reduction (it holds for cosine too) and state the parity-driven terminus.
Show that the substitution $x \mapsto \tfrac{\pi}{2} - x$ converts $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ into $\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$, justifying why the two integrals are equal.
Let $J_n = \int_0^{\pi/4}\tan^n x\,dx$ for $n \geq 2$. Show that $J_n = \tfrac{1}{n-1} - J_{n-2}$. (Hint: $\tan^n x = \tan^{n-2}x(\sec^2 x - 1)$.)
Without computing $I_n$ explicitly, prove $I_n < I_{n-1}$ for all $n \geq 1$. (Hint: on $(0,\pi/2)$, $0 < \sin x < 1$.)
Odd one out: Three of these definite integrals equal $\tfrac{3\pi}{16}$. Which one is NOT?
Earlier you computed $I_0 = \pi/2$ and $I_1 = 1$, and argued that the boundary term $\bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2}$ vanishes for $n \geq 2$.
The vanishing boundary term is what makes the recursion clean: it converts an integration-by-parts identity into a pure recurrence on $I_n$. From there, parity decides everything — even $n$ funnels into $I_0$ (keeping $\pi$); odd $n$ funnels into $I_1$ (no $\pi$). Recognising which parity you are in before multiplying out the chain is the single biggest time-saver on this style of problem.
Pick your answer, then rate your confidence — that tells the system what to drill next. Each retry pulls a fresh mix from the bank.
Q1. Using $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ with $I_0 = \tfrac{\pi}{2}$, evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^4 x\,dx$. Show the chain. (2 marks)
Q2. Let $I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$. Use integration by parts to derive $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ for $n \geq 2$. Justify the vanishing of the boundary term. (3 marks)
Q3. Evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^6 x\cos^2 x\,dx$. (Hint: write $\cos^2 x = 1 - \sin^2 x$ and reduce to a difference of $I_n$ values.) (3 marks)
Comprehensive answers (click to reveal)
Activity answers:
1. $I_3 = \tfrac{2}{3}I_1 = \tfrac{2}{3}\cdot 1 = \tfrac{2}{3}$.
2. $I_8 = \tfrac{7}{8}\cdot\tfrac{5}{6}\cdot\tfrac{3}{4}\cdot\tfrac{1}{2}\cdot\tfrac{\pi}{2} = \tfrac{105}{384}\cdot\tfrac{\pi}{2} = \tfrac{35\pi}{256}$.
3. With $u = \pi/2 - x$, $\sin x = \cos u$, $dx = -du$; limits swap, so $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx = \int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n u\,du$.
4. $\tan^n x = \tan^{n-2}x \cdot \sec^2 x - \tan^{n-2}x$, so $J_n = \bigl[\tfrac{\tan^{n-1}x}{n-1}\bigr]_0^{\pi/4} - J_{n-2} = \tfrac{1}{n-1} - J_{n-2}$.
5. On $(0, \pi/2)$, $0 < \sin x < 1$, so $\sin^n x < \sin^{n-1}x$. Integrating preserves strict inequality, hence $I_n < I_{n-1}$.
Q1 (2 marks): $I_4 = \tfrac{3}{4}I_2 = \tfrac{3}{4}\cdot\tfrac{1}{2}I_0$ [1]; $= \tfrac{3}{8}\cdot\tfrac{\pi}{2} = \tfrac{3\pi}{16}$ [1].
Q2 (3 marks): Parts with $u = \sin^{n-1}x$, $dv = \sin x\,dx$ [1]; boundary term zero (cos $= 0$ at $\pi/2$, $\sin^{n-1} = 0$ at $0$ when $n \geq 2$) [1]; expand $\cos^2 x = 1 - \sin^2 x$, collect: $nI_n = (n-1)I_{n-2}$ [1].
Q3 (3 marks): $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^6 x\cos^2 x\,dx = I_6 - I_8$ [1]; $I_6 = \tfrac{5\pi}{32}$, $I_8 = \tfrac{7}{8}I_6 = \tfrac{35\pi}{256}$ [1]; $I_6 - I_8 = \tfrac{40\pi - 35\pi}{256} = \tfrac{5\pi}{256}$ [1].
Five timed questions on definite reductions, parity descent, and Wallis-style integrals. Beat the boss to bank a tier — gold (90% + speed), silver (75%), or bronze (50%). Replays welcome.
⚔ Enter the arenaClimb platforms by answering quick reduction-formula questions. Lighter alternative to the boss.
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