Skip to content
M
hscscience Ext 2 · Y12
0/100daily goal
0
0
0 due
0
L1 · 0 XP
KJ
Your weak spots
Insights load after your first practice round.
Module 15 · L11 of 16 ~40 min ⚡ +90 XP available

Reduction Formulae II

When reduction formulae are applied to definite integrals — especially $\int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^n x\,dx$ and its cousins — the boundary terms often vanish, leaving a clean recursive relation. Today you will exploit that vanishing to compute $I_n$ for any $n$ in only a few lines, recognise the Wallis pattern, and learn when to stop the recursion. This is one of the highest-leverage techniques in Module 15.

Today's hook — Write $I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^n x\,dx$. Before reading on, compute $I_0$ and $I_1$ by direct integration. Then guess: what is $I_2$ in terms of $I_0$? Use integration by parts with $u = \sin^{n-1}x$. Compare with the official reduction after card 05.
0/5QUESTS
01
Recall — your gut answer first
+5 XP warm-up

Compute $I_0 = \int_0^{\pi/2} 1\,dx$ and $I_1 = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin x\,dx$. Before checking — also evaluate $\bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2}$ and explain why it equals $0$ whenever $n \geq 2$. Sketch your reasoning below.

auto-saved
02
The two moves for definite reduction
+5 XP to read

For definite reductions on $[0, \tfrac{\pi}{2}]$ the workflow has two habits: choose parts so the boundary term vanishes (split $\sin^n x = \sin^{n-1}x \cdot \sin x$ and take $u = \sin^{n-1}x$, $dv = \sin x\,dx$), then reduce the resulting integral by Pythagoras ($\cos^2 x = 1 - \sin^2 x$) to express $I_n$ as a multiple of $I_{n-2}$.

The parts-then-Pythagoras read: (1) split off one factor of $\sin x$ as $dv$, (2) use IBP — boundary term is zero on $[0,\pi/2]$, (3) replace $\cos^2 x$ with $1 - \sin^2 x$ to recover $I_n$ on the right and rearrange.

$I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^n x\,dx$  ·  $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}\, I_{n-2}$  ·  valid for $n \geq 2$

Split u, dv Parts [uv]=0 Pythag. cos²=1-sin² Rearrange: nI_n = (n-1)I_{n-2}
$I_n = \dfrac{n-1}{n}\, I_{n-2}$
Boundary term vanishes
On $[0,\pi/2]$, $\bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2} = 0$: at $\pi/2$ the $\cos$ kills it; at $0$ the $\sin^{n-1}$ kills it (for $n \geq 2$). Always check this before quoting a "clean" reduction.
Solve for $I_n$ on the LHS
After parts you get $I_n = (n-1)\bigl(I_{n-2} - I_n\bigr)$. Collect $I_n$ terms: $nI_n = (n-1)I_{n-2}$. Forgetting this rearrangement is the most common Band 4 slip.
Stop at $I_0$ or $I_1$
The recursion drops by 2 each step. If $n$ is even, descend to $I_0 = \pi/2$. If $n$ is odd, descend to $I_1 = 1$. Choose the parity ladder correctly before you start multiplying.
03
What you'll master
Know

Key facts

  • $I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^n x\,dx$ satisfies $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ for $n \geq 2$
  • $I_0 = \pi/2$ and $I_1 = 1$ are the base cases
  • The boundary term $\bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2} = 0$ when $n \geq 2$
  • The same reduction also holds for $\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$ by symmetry
Understand

Concepts

  • Why the choice $u = \sin^{n-1}x$, $dv = \sin x\,dx$ produces a vanishing boundary term
  • Why $I_n$ appears on both sides of the parts equation and must be solved for
  • How parity of $n$ determines whether the chain ends at $I_0$ or $I_1$
Can do

Skills

  • Derive $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ rigorously from integration by parts
  • Evaluate $I_n$ for any small $n$ using the Wallis-style descent
  • Adapt the technique to $\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$ and $\int_0^{\pi/4}\tan^n x\,dx$
04
Key terms
Reduction formulaA recursive relation expressing $I_n$ in terms of $I_{n-1}$ or $I_{n-2}$, derived once (usually by parts) and then applied repeatedly.
Wallis integral$\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ (or $\cos^n x$). Named for Wallis's product formula for $\pi$, which arises from the limit of these integrals.
Boundary termIn $\int_a^b u\,dv = [uv]_a^b - \int_a^b v\,du$, the $[uv]_a^b$ piece. On $[0,\pi/2]$ it often vanishes — exploiting this is the heart of definite reduction.
Parity descentBecause the index drops by $2$ each step, even $n$ terminates at $I_0$ and odd $n$ at $I_1$. The two parities have qualitatively different closed forms.
Pythagorean substitutionReplacing $\cos^2 x$ by $1 - \sin^2 x$ (or vice versa) to make a $\sin^n$ integral appear on the right side after parts. The trick that closes the recursion.
$I_n$ notationSubscript notation for the integral family being studied. Always define $I_n$ explicitly — examiners deduct marks for using $I_n$ without specifying the integrand and limits.
MEX-C1NESA outcome (Further Integration): applies reduction formulae to definite integrals, evaluates $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ and related families.
05
Deriving $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$
core concept

Let $I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ for $n \geq 2$. Write $\sin^n x = \sin^{n-1}x \cdot \sin x$ and apply integration by parts with $u = \sin^{n-1}x$, $dv = \sin x\,dx$, so $du = (n-1)\sin^{n-2}x\cos x\,dx$ and $v = -\cos x$.

Then $$I_n = \bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2} + (n-1)\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^{n-2}x\cos^2 x\,dx.$$

The boundary term is zero: at $x = \pi/2$, $\cos x = 0$; at $x = 0$, $\sin^{n-1}x = 0$ (provided $n \geq 2$). Replace $\cos^2 x = 1 - \sin^2 x$:

$$I_n = (n-1)\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^{n-2}x\,dx - (n-1)\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx = (n-1)I_{n-2} - (n-1)I_n.$$

Bring the $I_n$ over: $nI_n = (n-1)I_{n-2}$, hence $\boxed{I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}\,I_{n-2}}$.

Why this matters. A single derivation collapses an infinite family of integrals onto two base cases. For $I_6$: descend $I_6 = \tfrac{5}{6}I_4 = \tfrac{5}{6}\cdot\tfrac{3}{4}I_2 = \tfrac{5}{6}\cdot\tfrac{3}{4}\cdot\tfrac{1}{2}I_0 = \tfrac{15}{96}\cdot\tfrac{\pi}{2} = \tfrac{5\pi}{32}$.

Three moves: split off one $\sin x$ as $dv$, apply parts, use $\cos^2 = 1 - \sin^2$ · Boundary term $\bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2} = 0$ when $n \geq 2$ · After parts: $I_n = (n-1)I_{n-2} - (n-1)I_n \Rightarrow nI_n = (n-1)I_{n-2}$ · Result: $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$, valid for $n \geq 2$, base cases $I_0 = \pi/2$, $I_1 = 1$

Pause — copy the derivation of $I_n = \frac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ (split $\sin^n$, IBP, $\cos^2=1-\sin^2$, solve), the vanishing boundary term, and the two base cases $I_0 = \pi/2$, $I_1 = 1$ into your book.

Quick check: Using $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ with $I_0 = \tfrac{\pi}{2}$, what is $I_4 = \int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^4 x\,dx$?

06
Even vs odd: Wallis-style closed forms
core concept

We just saw that $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ for $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$, proved by IBP followed by $\cos^2=1-\sin^2$; the boundary term $[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x]_0^{\pi/2} = 0$ for all $n \geq 2$. That raises a question: does $n$ even or odd change the closed form? This card answers it → even $n$ gives a product of odd numbers over even numbers times $\pi/2$ (Wallis); odd $n$ gives a ratio of even over odd numbers with no $\pi$.

Iterating the reduction gives two distinct patterns depending on the parity of $n$.

  • Even $n = 2m$: $I_{2m} = \dfrac{(2m-1)(2m-3)\cdots 3 \cdot 1}{(2m)(2m-2)\cdots 4 \cdot 2}\cdot \dfrac{\pi}{2}$.
  • Odd $n = 2m+1$: $I_{2m+1} = \dfrac{(2m)(2m-2)\cdots 4 \cdot 2}{(2m+1)(2m-1)\cdots 3 \cdot 1}$.

The even case always carries a factor of $\pi/2$; the odd case never does. Use parity to predict the form of the answer before computing.

$$I_{2m} = \frac{(2m)!}{4^m\,(m!)^2}\cdot\frac{\pi}{2}, \qquad I_{2m+1} = \frac{4^m\,(m!)^2}{(2m+1)!}$$
Symmetry to $\cos^n$. The substitution $x \mapsto \tfrac{\pi}{2} - x$ converts $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ into $\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$. The two integrals are equal, so the reduction formula and closed form transfer directly.

Even $n$: ratio of odd numbers over even numbers, times $\pi/2$ · Odd $n$: ratio of even numbers over odd numbers, no $\pi$ · $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx = \int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$ by $x \mapsto \pi/2 - x$ · Sanity check: $I_n > 0$ and decreases with $n$ (integrand $\leq 1$)

Pause — copy the even-$n$ (odd/even $\cdot \pi/2$) and odd-$n$ (even/odd, no $\pi$) Wallis-style patterns, the symmetry $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx = \int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$, and the sanity checks ($I_n > 0$, decreasing in $n$) into your book.

Did you get this? True or false: $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^5 x\,dx = \tfrac{8}{15}$ (no factor of $\pi$).

PROBLEM 1 · DERIVE THE REDUCTION

Let $I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ for integer $n \geq 2$. Show that $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$.

1
Write $\sin^n x = \sin^{n-1}x \cdot \sin x$. Take $u = \sin^{n-1}x$, $dv = \sin x\,dx$, so $du = (n-1)\sin^{n-2}x\cos x\,dx$ and $v = -\cos x$.
Splitting off one factor of $\sin x$ to be $dv$ is the standard move — it makes $v = -\cos x$ which combines with $du$ to give the $\cos^2 x$ that fuels the Pythagorean step.
PROBLEM 2 · EVALUATE $I_6$

Evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^6 x\,dx$ using the reduction formula $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$.

1
$n = 6$ is even, so the chain ends at $I_0 = \pi/2$. Apply the recursion: $I_6 = \tfrac{5}{6}I_4$, $I_4 = \tfrac{3}{4}I_2$, $I_2 = \tfrac{1}{2}I_0$.
Write the chain out explicitly so you don't lose a factor — descending by $2$ at a time means three multiplications for $n = 6$. The parity check decides whether you end at $I_0$ or $I_1$.
PROBLEM 3 · ODD CASE $I_7$

Evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^7 x\,dx$ and compare its form to the even case.

1
$n = 7$ is odd, so the chain ends at $I_1 = \int_0^{\pi/2}\sin x\,dx = [-\cos x]_0^{\pi/2} = 1$. Apply: $I_7 = \tfrac{6}{7}I_5$, $I_5 = \tfrac{4}{5}I_3$, $I_3 = \tfrac{2}{3}I_1$.
For odd $n$ the chain always terminates at $I_1 = 1$, never $I_0$. Confirm the parity first so you don't accidentally invoke $\pi/2$.

Fill the gap: For $I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ with $n \geq 2$, the boundary term in the integration by parts is $\bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2} = $ , and the resulting recursion is $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}\,I_{n-?}$ with in the blank.

Trap 01
Forgetting the $I_n$ on the right
After parts and Pythagoras you get $I_n = (n-1)I_{n-2} - (n-1)I_n$ — there is an $I_n$ on both sides. Failing to collect it gives the wrong recursion $I_n = (n-1)I_{n-2}$, missing the crucial $1/n$ factor.
Trap 02
Wrong parity terminus
The recursion drops by $2$, so even $n$ ends at $I_0 = \pi/2$ and odd $n$ ends at $I_1 = 1$. Mixing these up gives answers off by a factor of $\pi/2$. Check parity before starting the chain.
Trap 03
Ignoring the boundary check
The boundary term $[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x]_0^{\pi/2}$ vanishes only because both endpoints zero out for $n \geq 2$. On different intervals (e.g. $[0,\pi]$) or with a different integrand, it may not vanish — always justify, never assume.

Did you get this? True or false: the reduction formula $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ for $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ holds also for $\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$ with the same coefficients.

Work mode · how are you completing this lesson?
1

Evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^3 x\,dx$ using the reduction formula. Show each step of the chain.

2

Evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^8 x\,dx$. Use the same reduction (it holds for cosine too) and state the parity-driven terminus.

3

Show that the substitution $x \mapsto \tfrac{\pi}{2} - x$ converts $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$ into $\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n x\,dx$, justifying why the two integrals are equal.

4

Let $J_n = \int_0^{\pi/4}\tan^n x\,dx$ for $n \geq 2$. Show that $J_n = \tfrac{1}{n-1} - J_{n-2}$. (Hint: $\tan^n x = \tan^{n-2}x(\sec^2 x - 1)$.)

5

Without computing $I_n$ explicitly, prove $I_n < I_{n-1}$ for all $n \geq 1$. (Hint: on $(0,\pi/2)$, $0 < \sin x < 1$.)

Odd one out: Three of these definite integrals equal $\tfrac{3\pi}{16}$. Which one is NOT?

11
Revisit your thinking

Earlier you computed $I_0 = \pi/2$ and $I_1 = 1$, and argued that the boundary term $\bigl[-\sin^{n-1}x\cos x\bigr]_0^{\pi/2}$ vanishes for $n \geq 2$.

The vanishing boundary term is what makes the recursion clean: it converts an integration-by-parts identity into a pure recurrence on $I_n$. From there, parity decides everything — even $n$ funnels into $I_0$ (keeping $\pi$); odd $n$ funnels into $I_1$ (no $\pi$). Recognising which parity you are in before multiplying out the chain is the single biggest time-saver on this style of problem.

auto-saved
01
Multiple choice
+5 XP per correct · +25 XP all-correct

Pick your answer, then rate your confidence — that tells the system what to drill next. Each retry pulls a fresh mix from the bank.

02
Short answer
ApplyBand 32 marks

Q1. Using $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ with $I_0 = \tfrac{\pi}{2}$, evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^4 x\,dx$. Show the chain. (2 marks)

auto-saved
ApplyBand 43 marks

Q2. Let $I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx$. Use integration by parts to derive $I_n = \tfrac{n-1}{n}I_{n-2}$ for $n \geq 2$. Justify the vanishing of the boundary term. (3 marks)

auto-saved
AnalyseBand 53 marks

Q3. Evaluate $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^6 x\cos^2 x\,dx$. (Hint: write $\cos^2 x = 1 - \sin^2 x$ and reduce to a difference of $I_n$ values.) (3 marks)

auto-saved
Comprehensive answers (click to reveal)

Activity answers:

1. $I_3 = \tfrac{2}{3}I_1 = \tfrac{2}{3}\cdot 1 = \tfrac{2}{3}$.

2. $I_8 = \tfrac{7}{8}\cdot\tfrac{5}{6}\cdot\tfrac{3}{4}\cdot\tfrac{1}{2}\cdot\tfrac{\pi}{2} = \tfrac{105}{384}\cdot\tfrac{\pi}{2} = \tfrac{35\pi}{256}$.

3. With $u = \pi/2 - x$, $\sin x = \cos u$, $dx = -du$; limits swap, so $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^n x\,dx = \int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n u\,du$.

4. $\tan^n x = \tan^{n-2}x \cdot \sec^2 x - \tan^{n-2}x$, so $J_n = \bigl[\tfrac{\tan^{n-1}x}{n-1}\bigr]_0^{\pi/4} - J_{n-2} = \tfrac{1}{n-1} - J_{n-2}$.

5. On $(0, \pi/2)$, $0 < \sin x < 1$, so $\sin^n x < \sin^{n-1}x$. Integrating preserves strict inequality, hence $I_n < I_{n-1}$.

Q1 (2 marks): $I_4 = \tfrac{3}{4}I_2 = \tfrac{3}{4}\cdot\tfrac{1}{2}I_0$ [1]; $= \tfrac{3}{8}\cdot\tfrac{\pi}{2} = \tfrac{3\pi}{16}$ [1].

Q2 (3 marks): Parts with $u = \sin^{n-1}x$, $dv = \sin x\,dx$ [1]; boundary term zero (cos $= 0$ at $\pi/2$, $\sin^{n-1} = 0$ at $0$ when $n \geq 2$) [1]; expand $\cos^2 x = 1 - \sin^2 x$, collect: $nI_n = (n-1)I_{n-2}$ [1].

Q3 (3 marks): $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin^6 x\cos^2 x\,dx = I_6 - I_8$ [1]; $I_6 = \tfrac{5\pi}{32}$, $I_8 = \tfrac{7}{8}I_6 = \tfrac{35\pi}{256}$ [1]; $I_6 - I_8 = \tfrac{40\pi - 35\pi}{256} = \tfrac{5\pi}{256}$ [1].

01
Boss battle · The Wallis Wrangler
earn bronze · silver · gold

Five timed questions on definite reductions, parity descent, and Wallis-style integrals. Beat the boss to bank a tier — gold (90% + speed), silver (75%), or bronze (50%). Replays welcome.

⚔ Enter the arena
02
Science Jump · platform challenge

Climb platforms by answering quick reduction-formula questions. Lighter alternative to the boss.

Mark lesson as complete

Tick when you've finished the practice and review.

🎓
Want help with Reduction Formulae II?

Work through this topic 1-on-1 with an experienced HSC tutor.

Book a free session →